If God hasn't selected a day, why did Paul say a day was appointed for the second coming?


I was reading "If Jesus is God, how come only the Father knows of the second coming?" because I wanted to know the answer to this question, but if the Father hasn't chosen a day, what about this verse? Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereofhe hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead. Acts 17:31

Please help. Thanks!


Perhaps it is a bit clearer in the Greek, though the English translation reflects it. God has appointed a day; that is, the day is certain to occur, but this verse doesn't say a certain day was preselected. In Greek to say that, you would have to say that God appointed the day. Paul is assuring the Greeks that judgment would come.

Oh! Thank you so much! That helped a lot! And thank you for your speedy answer!