How can Obadiah 21 speak of saviors when there is only one Savior?


I have a question about Obadiah verse 21, in the King James Version the second word is "saviors". And I know it does not mean Jesus, and it is a plural form. But who can be called savior except Jesus Himself? I don't understand the verse. Can you help me explain? Thanks a lot.


"And the captives of this host of the children of Israel shall possess the land of the Canaanites as far as Zarephath. The captives of Jerusalem who are in Sepharad shall possess the cities of the South. Then saviors shall come to Mount Zion to judge the mountains of Esau, and the kingdom shall be the LORD'S" (Obadiah 20-21).

Just because there is one Savior of all mankind, it does not imply that there are not others who might save their fellow men on a more limited scale. For example, consider Nehemiah 2:10 and II Kings 13:5, which the later has the word "savior" in it.

The period of time being discussed is after the Babylonian captivity. Obadiah is telling Edom (the country to Israel's south who gloated in Israel's captivity) that they would be destroyed in turn. Israel would return while Edom would not and Israel would have control over the territory that once belonged to Edom.

However, Israel would not be ruled by kings as they had been. During this period God would raise up saviors, or judges, to rule just as He did during the period of the Judges. "I will restore your judges as at the first, and your counselors as at the beginning. Afterward you shall be called the city of righteousness, the faithful city" (Isaiah 1:26).