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How are those in the patriarch times saved if there was no hope for them? Was it because of Jesus' death that all (who tried to live good unto God) were saved before Moses and the Ten Commandments? Please explain.


"And for this reason He is the Mediator of the new covenant, by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions under the first covenant, that those who are called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance" (Hebrews 9:15).

The writer of Hebrews states that Jesus' death wasn't limited to redeeming future people, it also redeemed people in the past. Though he specifically discusses those who lived under the Old Law, the principle remains the same. "For as many as have sinned without law will also perish without law, and as many as have sinned in the law will be judged by the law (for not the hearers of the law are just in the sight of God, but the doers of the law will be justified; for when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, who show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and between themselves their thoughts accusing or else excusing them) in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel" (Romans 2:12-16).

"And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel to Abraham beforehand, saying, "In you all the nations shall be blessed." So then those who are of faith are blessed with believing Abraham" (Galatians 3:8-9).


See also:

Questions and Answers regarding Salvation